Dinklage Corp. has 6 million shares of common stock outstanding. The current share price is $85, and the book value per share is $8. The company also has two bond issues outstanding. The first bond issue has a face value of $65 million, a coupon rate of 8 percent, and sells for 95 percent of par. The second issue has a face value of $40 million, a coupon rate of 9 percent, and sells for 108 percent of par. The first issue matures in 23 years, the second in 5 years.
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Suppose the most recent dividend was $5.70 and the dividend growth rate is 4 percent. Assume that the overall cost of debt is the weighted average of that implied by the two outstanding debt issues. Both bonds make semiannual payments. The tax rate is 38 percent. What is the company’s WACC? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
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WACC | % |
The market value of equity is the share price times the number of shares, so:
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MVE = 6,000,000($85) |
MVE = $510,000,000
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Using the relationship that the total market value of debt is the price quote times the par value of the bond, we find the market value of debt is: |
MVD = .95($65,000,000) + 1.08($40,000,000) |
MVD = $104,950,000 |
This makes the total market value of the company: |
V = $510,000,000 + 104,950,000 |
V = $614,950,000 |
And the market value weights of equity and debt are: |
E/V = $510,000,000 / $614,950,000 |
E/V = .8293 |
D/V = 1 – E/V = .1707 |
Next, we will find the cost of equity for the company. The information provided allows us to solve for the cost of equity using the dividend growth model, so:
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RE = [$5.70(1.04) / $85] + .04 |
RE = .1097, or 10.97%
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Next, we need to find the YTM on both bond issues. Doing so, we find:
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P1 = $950 = $40(PVIFAR%,46) + $1,000(PVIFR%,46) |
R = 4.249% |
YTM = 4.249% × 2 = 8.50% |
P2 = $1,080 = $45(PVIFAR%,10) + $1,000(PVIFR%,10) |
R = 3.536% |
YTM = 3.536% × 2 = 7.07% |
To find the weighted average aftertax cost of debt, we need the weight of each bond as a percentage of the total debt. We find:
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xD1 = .95($65,000,000) / $104,950,000 |
xD1 = .5884 |
xD2 = 1.08($40,000,000) / $104,950,000 |
xD2 = .4116 |
Now we can multiply the weighted average cost of debt times one minus the tax rate to find the weighted average aftertax cost of debt. This gives us:
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RD = (1 – .38)[(.5884)(.0850) + (.4116)(.0707)] |
RD = .0491, or 4.91% |
Using these costs and the weight of debt we calculated earlier, the WACC is:
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WACC = .8293(.1097) + .1707(.0491) |
WACC = .0994, or 9.94% |
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