WACC is 8.37%
Explanation
Note: Intermediate answers are shown below as rounded, but the full answer was used to complete the calculation.
|
| |
We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing. We find:
|
| |
MVD = 12,000($1,000)(1.09) = $13,080,000
|
| MVE = 450,000($63) = $28,350,000 |
| MVP = 19,500($84) = $1,638,000 |
And the total market value of the firm is:
|
| |
| V = $13,080,000 + 28,350,000 + 1,638,000 |
V = $43,068,000
|
| |
| Now, we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is: |
| |
| RE = .049 + 1.14(.05) |
| RE = .1060, or 10.60% |
| |
| The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so: |
| |
| P0 = $1,090 = $30.50(PVIFAR%,54) + $1,000(PVIFR%,54) |
| R = 2.729% |
| YTM = 2.729% × 2 = 5.46% |
| |
| And the aftertax cost of debt is: |
| |
| RD = (1 – .22)(.0546) |
| RD = .0426, or 4.26% |
| |
| The cost of preferred stock is: |
| |
| RP = $3.90/$84 |
| RP = .0464, or 4.64% |
| |
| Now we have all of the components to calculate the WACC. The WACC is: |
| |
| WACC = .0426(13.080/43.068) + .1060(28.350/43.068) + .0464(1.638/43.068) |
| WACC = .0845, or 8.45% |
| |
Notice that we didn’t include the (1 – TC) term in the WACC equation. We used the aftertax cost of debt in the equation, so the term is not needed here.
|
|
No comments:
Post a Comment